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finish q4. nice inequality, construction is not hard for final bit.
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tex/2011/3/4-diag1.tex

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\begin{tikzpicture}
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\draw[->] (-0.5, 0) -- (5.5, 0) node[right] {\(x\)};
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\draw[->] (0, -0.5) -- (0, 5.5) node[above] {\(y\)};
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\filldraw (0, 0) circle (1pt) node[below left] {\(O\)};
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\draw[fill=gray!25] plot[smooth, samples=200, domain=1:5] (\x, \x^2 / 5) -| (0,0) -- cycle;
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\node at (2, 3) {\(\int_{0}^{b} f^{-1} (x) \Diff x\)};
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\draw[fill=gray!25] plot[smooth, samples=200, domain=1:4] (\x, \x^2 / 5) |- (0,0) -- cycle;
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\node at (3.15, 1) {\(\int_{0}^{a} f(x) \Diff x\)};
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\node at (5, 5) [above right] {\(y = f(x)\)};
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\node at (4, 0) [below] {\(a\)};
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\node at (0, 5) [left] {\(b\)};
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\draw[dashed] (4, 16 / 5) -- (4, 5) node [above] {\((a, b)\)};
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\end{tikzpicture}

tex/2011/3/4-diag2.tex

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\begin{tikzpicture}
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\draw[->] (-0.5, 0) -- (5.5, 0) node[right] {\(x\)};
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\draw[->] (0, -0.5) -- (0, 5.5) node[above] {\(y\)};
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\filldraw (0, 0) circle (1pt) node[below left] {\(O\)};
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\draw[fill=gray!25] plot[smooth, samples=200, domain=1:4] (\x, \x^2 / 5) -| (0,0) -- cycle;
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\node at (1.5, 2) {\(\int_{0}^{b} f^{-1} (x) \Diff x\)};
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\draw[fill=gray!25] plot[smooth, samples=200, domain=1:5] (\x, \x^2 / 5) |- (0,0) -- cycle;
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\node at (4, 1) {\(\int_{0}^{a} f(x) \Diff x\)};
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\node at (5, 5) [above right] {\(y = f(x)\)};
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\node at (5, 0) [below] {\(a\)};
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\node at (0, 16 / 5) [left] {\(b\)};
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\draw[dashed] (4, 16 / 5) -- (5, 16 / 5) node[right] {\((a, b)\)};
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\end{tikzpicture}

tex/2011/3/4.tex

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\Question{\currfilebase}
2-
\WorkInProgress
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\begin{enumerate}
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\item The following two diagrams shows the cases \(a < b\) and \(a > b\) respectively.
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\begin{center}
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\input{\currfiledir 4-diag1}
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\input{\currfiledir 4-diag2}
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\end{center}
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In both cases, the shaded area is greater than the area of the rectangle formed by \((0, 0), (a, 0), (a, b)\) and \((0, b)\), leading to the inequality. The equal sign holds when \(b = f(a)\).
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\item Since \(f(x) = x^{p - 1}\), we must have \(x = f^{-1}(x)^{p - 1}\), and hence \(f^{-1}(x) = x^{\frac{1}{p - 1}}\). Hence,
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\[
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\int_{0}^{a} f(x) \Diff x = \frac{1}{p} \left[x^p\right]_{0}^{a} = \frac{a^p}{p}.
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\]
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Since \(\frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{q} = 1\), we must have \(\frac{1}{q} = 1 - \frac{1}{p} = \frac{p - 1}{p}\), and
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\[
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q = \frac{p}{p - 1},
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\]
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and hence
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\[
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f^{-1}(x) = x^{q - 1},
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\]
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which gives
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\[
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\int_{0}^{b} f^{-1}(x) \Diff x = \frac{b^q}{q}.
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\]
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Since \(f\) is a polynomial, it must be continuous. \(f(0) = 0^{p - 1} = 0\), and
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\[
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f'(x) = (p - 1) x^{p - 2}
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\]
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is always non-negative for \(x \geq 0\), we must have by the original inequality
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\[
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ab \leq \frac{a^p}{p} + \frac{b^q}{q}
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\]
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as desired.
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\item Consider the function \(f(x) = \sin x\). First, \(f\) is continuous, and
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\[
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f'(x) = \cos x
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\]
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is always positive for \(0 \leq x \leq \frac{1}{2} \pi\). We notice
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\[
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\int_{0}^{a} f(x) \Diff x = [-\cos x]_{0}^{a} = 1 - \cos a,
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\]
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and \(f^{-1}(x) = \arcsin x\), and hence for \(0 \leq b \leq 1\),
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\begin{align*}
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\int_{0}^{b} f^{-1}(x) \Diff x & = \int_{0}^{b} \arcsin(x) \Diff x \\
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& = \left[x \arcsin x\right]_{0}^{b} - \int_{0}^{b} x \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}} \Diff x \\
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& = \left[x \arcsin x + \sqrt{1 - x^2}\right]_{0}^{b} \\
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& = b \arcsin b + \sqrt{1 - b^2} - 1.
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\end{align*}
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Hence, using the given inequality,
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\[
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ab \leq b \arcsin b + \sqrt{1 - b^2} - 1 + 1 - \cos a = b \arcsin b + \sqrt{1 - b^2} - \cos a,
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\]
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as desired.
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Let \(a = 0\) and \(b = t^{-1}\). Since \(t \geq 1\), we have \(0 < b \leq 1\), and hence
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\[
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0 \leq t^{-1} \arcsin t^{-1} + \sqrt{1 - t^{-2}} - \cos 0.
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\]
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Multiplying both sides by \(t\), and noticing \(\cos 0 = 1\), we have
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\[
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0 \leq \arcsin t^{-1} + \sqrt{t^2 - 1} - t,
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\]
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and hence
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\[
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\arcsin t^{-1} \geq t - \sqrt{t^2 - 1},
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\]
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as desired.
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\end{enumerate}

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