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Cisco 300-710 SNCF Exam: Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower

Cisco Certified Track Level Duration Score Practice Partner


1. Exam Overview & Candidate Profile

The Cisco 300-710 SNCF (Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower) exam tests a candidate's operational and architectural knowledge of Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) and Cisco Firepower Management Center (FMC). The exam validates proficiency in deploying Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFW) and Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention Systems (NGIPS), configuring advanced security policies (Access Control, SSL Decryption, Security Intelligence, Intrusion/File policies), and troubleshooting deep packet inspection workflows using the Snort 3 engine.

Passing the 300-710 SNCF exam earns the Cisco Certified Specialist - Network Security Firepower certification and satisfies the concentration requirement for the CCNP Security certification.

Target Candidate Profile & Roles

  • Network Security Engineer / Security Infrastructure Specialist
  • Firewall Administrator / Security Operations Escalation Engineer
  • Network Defense Implementation Consultant
  • Prerequisites: Thorough grounding in network security concepts (CCNP SCOR level) and hands-on experience administering Cisco Firepower appliances and FMC.

2. Key Exam Specifications

Parameter Official Specification
Exam Code 300-710
Exam Name Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (SNCF)
Associated Credential Cisco Certified Specialist - Network Security Firepower / CCNP Security
Duration 90 Minutes
Passing Score ~825 / 1000 (Scaled dynamic calibration)
Question Count 55–65 questions
Question Formats Multiple Choice (single/multiple select), Drag-and-Drop, Simlets / FMC GUI Scenarios
Delivery Vendor Pearson VUE Authorized Test Centers & OnVUE Online Remote Proctored
Practice Test Partner 300-710 Practice Test (Coupon: club20 for 20% off)

3. Skills Measured & Blueprint Domain Weighting

Domain Code Domain Title Exam Weight Key Technical Objectives Covered
1.0 Deployment 15% FMC and FTD physical/virtual deployments; Routed vs. Transparent firewall modes; Inline Interface Pairs, Inline Sets, and Passive (TAP) interfaces; FMC High Availability; FTD Active/Standby hardware failover.
2.0 Configuration 30% System settings, platform settings, and NAT policies; Object Management (network, port, URL, certificate objects); Security Intelligence (IP, DNS, URL feeds and sinkholing); Identity Policies and passive/active authentication with Cisco ISE (pxGrid).
3.0 Management and Troubleshooting 25% Packet flow diagnostics (packet-tracer, capture-traffic); Snort 3 engine debugging; health monitoring, alert responses, and Syslog/eStreamer export; FMC database backups and software upgrade readiness.
4.0 Integration 15% Cisco ISE integration via pxGrid; Cisco Threat Intelligence Director (TID); Active Directory integration via Realm and Identity Services Engine; Cisco SecureX and cloud-delivered management integration.
5.0 Security Policies 15% Access Control Policies (ACP) evaluation hierarchy; Prefilter policies; Network Analysis Policies (NAP); Intrusion Policies (Snort rules, base policy selection, drop vs. alert); File Policies (AMP for Networks, malware block, cloud dynamic analysis); SSL/TLS Decryption policies.

4. Scenario-Based Technical Practice Questions

Scenario 1: FTD Deployment Modes - Routed vs. Inline Set Inspection

Topology Background:
An enterprise deploys a Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) appliance to inspect traffic between two existing internal VLANs without modifying IP addressing, default gateways, or routing tables on adjacent switches. The security team requires active inline blocking of malicious exploit payloads and strict TCP normalization. Which interface mode should the engineer configure on the FTD interfaces?

  • A. Routed Mode with Dynamic BGP peering
  • B. Inline Interface Pair (Inline Set)
  • C. Passive Interface (SPAN / TAP port mirror)
  • D. Inline Set with "Tap Mode" enabled

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Technical Explanation:

  • An Inline Interface Pair (Inline Set) bridges two physical interfaces together at Layer 2 inside the FTD appliance.
  • Traffic entering one interface exits the other without requiring IP address assignment on the interfaces, preserving existing subnets and default gateways.
  • Unlike passive TAP mode, an Inline Set processes packets inline, allowing the Snort engine to actively drop malicious packets, reset TCP connections, and apply full TCP stream normalization and IPS blocking rules.
  • Distractor analysis: Option A (Routed Mode) requires IP addresses and Layer 3 routing configuration. Option C (Passive) receives a copy of traffic and cannot drop packets. Option D ("Tap Mode" on an Inline Set) copies packets to Snort while forwarding original packets unhindered, preventing inline blocking.

Scenario 2: Access Control Policy (ACP) Evaluation Order

Topology Background:
A security administrator configures an Access Control Policy on Cisco FMC containing multiple inspection engines and policy layers. When a new incoming connection arrives at an FTD interface, what is the exact chronological order in which the Firepower system evaluates the traffic?

  • A. Access Control Rules $\rightarrow$ Prefilter $\rightarrow$ Security Intelligence $\rightarrow$ Intrusion Policy
  • B. Prefilter Policy $\rightarrow$ Security Intelligence $\rightarrow$ Identity Policy $\rightarrow$ Access Control Rules $\rightarrow$ Intrusion / File Policy
  • C. Identity Policy $\rightarrow$ Access Control Rules $\rightarrow$ Prefilter $\rightarrow$ Security Intelligence
  • D. Intrusion Policy $\rightarrow$ File Policy $\rightarrow$ Prefilter $\rightarrow$ Access Control Rules

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Technical Explanation:
The Cisco Firepower architecture evaluates traffic through distinct phased policy stages:

  1. Prefilter Policy: First inspection stage; performs fast-path outer-header matching (IP/port) to bypass or fast-path trusted flows before resource-intensive Snort processing.
  2. Security Intelligence (SI): Drops traffic based on high-confidence blacklisted IP addresses, URLs, or DNS domains before rule processing.
  3. Identity Policy: Maps IP addresses to Active Directory usernames using passive authentication (ISE pxGrid / User Agent) or captive portal active authentication.
  4. Access Control Rules: Evaluated sequentially from top to bottom (first-match principle) matching network, port, URL categories, and application criteria.
  5. Intrusion / File Policy: Deep packet payload inspection executed on permitted flows matching an Allow rule (Snort IPS rules and AMP malware analysis).
  • Distractor analysis: Options A, C, and D list out-of-order evaluation sequences.

Scenario 3: SSL/TLS Decryption Policy - Outbound Web Inspection

Topology Background:
An organization needs to inspect outbound HTTPS employee web browsing to detect data exfiltration and block malware hidden within encrypted TLS sessions. The administrator configures an FMC SSL Policy with a rule matching internal users navigating to external web destinations. What type of Certificate Authority (CA) configuration must be applied to this SSL rule?

  • A. Decrypt - Known Key using the external web servers' private keys
  • B. Decrypt - Resign using an internal Enterprise Root or Subordinate CA certificate trusted by all client endpoints
  • C. Do Not Decrypt with Certificate Pinning bypass
  • D. Block with Reset using a self-signed client certificate

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Technical Explanation:

  • For outbound traffic where internal clients connect to external third-party websites (e.g., banking, SaaS apps), the enterprise does not own the destination servers' private keys.
  • Therefore, the FTD must act as a forward proxy using Decrypt - Resign.
  • The FTD intercepts the client TLS handshake, establishes its own TLS session with the external server, validates the server's certificate, and dynamically creates a synthetic server certificate resigned by an internal corporate CA. Because the corporate CA is installed in the clients' trusted root certificate stores, the client browsers accept the connection without security warnings, allowing FTD to decrypt, inspect, and re-encrypt the payload.
  • Distractor analysis: Option A (Known Key) is used for inbound inspection where the organization owns the internal web server and possesses its private key. Option C skips decryption entirely. Option D terminates all connections.

Scenario 4: Security Intelligence - DNS Sinkholing Operation

Topology Background:
A SOC analyst configures Security Intelligence DNS policies in FMC to protect corporate clients from known Command and Control (C2) botnets. When an infected internal endpoint attempts to resolve a malicious domain name (bad-actor-domain.com), the organization wants to capture and identify the infected host without alerting the malware authors or letting the connection succeed. What action should be configured on the DNS Security Intelligence rule?

  • A. Whitelist the domain and generate an SNMP trap
  • B. Block the packet and send an ICMP Host Unreachable message
  • C. Sinkhole the query by configuring FTD to forge a DNS reply pointing to an internal, non-routable honeypot IP address
  • D. Route the DNS query directly to the public root DNS servers

Correct Answer: C

Detailed Technical Explanation:

  • DNS Sinkholing: Intercepts DNS queries destined for malicious domains listed in Threat Intelligence feeds.
  • Instead of simply dropping the query (which causes timeouts and retries), FTD intercepts the DNS request and returns a forged DNS response containing the IP address of an internal Sinkhole server (or non-routable IP).
  • When the infected host subsequently attempts to initiate an HTTP/TCP connection to the sinkhole IP address, the local connection attempt triggers immediate alerts in the SIEM/FMC, pinpointing the exact internal IP of the compromised workstation without allowing any external traffic to leave the network.
  • Distractor analysis: Option A allows malicious connections. Option B alerts the malware of network intervention without identifying subsequent connection attempts. Option D bypasses security filtering.

Scenario 5: File Policies & Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Networks

Topology Background:
An engineer configures a Firepower File Policy attached to an Access Control Rule permitting employee file downloads. The policy is configured to inspect Windows executable files (.exe). The engineer wants the appliance to calculate SHA-256 hashes, query Cisco Talos Cloud for file disposition, and if the file disposition is unknown, automatically upload the executable to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic sandbox detonation. Which sequence of file policy options must be enabled?

  • A. Detect Files $\rightarrow$ Reset Connection
  • B. Malware Cloud Lookup $\rightarrow$ Dynamic Analysis
  • C. Block Malware $\rightarrow$ Bypass Inspection
  • D. Local Malware Analysis $\rightarrow$ Spero Heuristics only

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Technical Explanation:

  • In an FMC File Policy:
    1. Malware Cloud Lookup: Calculates the SHA-256 hash of extracted files and queries the Cisco AMP cloud for an immediate disposition (Clean, Malicious, or Unknown).
    2. Dynamic Analysis: When the cloud returns Unknown for supported file types (such as .exe, .pdf, .doc), FTD automatically submits the file to the Cisco Threat Grid cloud (or on-premises Threat Grid appliance) for execution inside an instrumented sandbox to analyze runtime behavioral telemetry.
  • Distractor analysis: Option A only logs without cloud disposition lookup. Option C blocks files unconditionally without dynamic sandboxing. Option D runs local machine-learning heuristics (Spero/Mks) but does not perform dynamic cloud detonation.

Scenario 6: FTD High Availability - Failover Interface Requirements

Topology Background:
A network administrator configures an Active/Standby High Availability (HA) cluster between two Cisco Firepower 2130 appliances managed by FMC. What are the strict prerequisite hardware and software requirements for establishing FTD Active/Standby failover?

  • A. The units can run different major software releases as long as physical RAM is identical.
  • B. The two units must be identical hardware models, run the identical software version and patch level, and share identical interface types and physical module layouts.
  • C. Failover requires a minimum of three FTD units to establish quorum.
  • D. Units must be installed in different geographical data centers connected over an L3 MPLS WAN.

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Technical Explanation:

  • Cisco FTD Active/Standby High Availability enforces strict consistency requirements:
    1. Identical Hardware: Exact same chassis model, supervisor, and network module expansion cards.
    2. Identical Software: Same major, minor, maintenance, and patch (VDB/LSP) release versions.
    3. Identical Interface Topology: Same interface configurations, names, and speeds.
    4. Dedicated Failover Link and State Link (can share the same physical interface) connected over low-latency Layer 2 connectivity.
  • Distractor analysis: Option A is false; software versions must match exactly. Option C is false; FTD HA supports exactly two units (unlike clustering, which supports up to 16). Option D is false; HA links require low-latency Layer 2 adjacencies, not high-latency L3 WANs.

Scenario 7: Snort 3 Intrusion Policy - Rule State Modifications

Topology Background:
During a threat assessment, an FMC administrator reviews a critical vulnerability affecting Apache web servers (SID 42105). In the active Intrusion Policy (derived from the Balanced Security and Connectivity base policy), the rule state is set to Generate Events (Alert). To ensure that incoming exploits are dropped inline before reaching web servers, to what state must the administrator change the rule?

  • A. Disable
  • B. Drop and Generate Events
  • C. Pass
  • D. Filter Only

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Technical Explanation:

  • In Cisco Firepower Intrusion Policies:
    • Generate Events: Generates an intrusion event log entry when traffic matches the rule signature, but allows the packet to pass through to the destination.
    • Drop and Generate Events: Drops the offending packet (and resets the connection if configured) while logging the intrusion alert, providing active inline protection.
    • Disable: Deactivates the rule completely from the Snort inspection engine.
  • Distractor analysis: Option A disables detection. Option C permits the packet without logging. Option D is an invalid rule state.

Scenario 8: Identity Policies - Passive Authentication via Cisco ISE pxGrid

Topology Background:
An enterprise uses Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) for 802.1X network access and wants FMC Access Control Rules to enforce firewall policies based on Active Directory user groups (e.g., Finance_Dept). The security architect configures an FMC Identity Policy utilizing pxGrid. How does FMC acquire user-to-IP session mappings under this design?

  • A. FMC initiates an active captive portal challenge for every new web connection.
  • B. Cisco ISE shares real-time Session Directory metadata (User ID, IP address, SGT) with FMC over an encrypted pxGrid WebSocket channel.
  • C. FTD continuously parses Windows Domain Controller security event logs via WMI.
  • D. Client workstations run a custom Python agent that reports active logins to FMC.

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Technical Explanation:

  • Cisco pxGrid (Platform Exchange Grid): A standards-based, publish-subscribe framework that enables security platforms to share contextual telemetry.
  • When an endpoint authenticates to the network via 802.1X/MAB, Cisco ISE publishes the user identity, assigned IP address, MAC address, and Security Group Tag (SGT) to pxGrid.
  • The FMC subscribes to ISE's Session Directory topic, receiving instantaneous user-to-IP mappings without requiring active web redirection or high-overhead WMI log scraping on Active Directory domain controllers.
  • Distractor analysis: Option A describes Active Authentication (Captive Portal). Option C describes the legacy Cisco User Agent / WMI polling. Option D is unnecessary because 802.1X natively tracks sessions.

Scenario 9: Troubleshooting CLI - FTD packet-tracer Utility

Topology Background:
A user reports they cannot connect to an internal database server (10.1.1.100) on port 1521. A security engineer logs into the Cisco FTD command-line interface (CLI) to simulate an incoming TCP packet and determine which policy engine is dropping the traffic:

packet-tracer input INSIDE tcp 10.2.2.50 49152 10.1.1.100 1521

The output concludes with: Action: DROP at Phase: 8 (ACCESS-LIST). What does this diagnostic output confirm?

  • A. The packet was dropped because the ARP resolution for the default gateway failed.
  • B. The packet was explicitly or implicitly denied by an Access Control Rule in the Access Control Policy.
  • C. The Snort 3 engine dropped the packet due to an IPS signature match.
  • D. The database server replied with a TCP RST flag.

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Technical Explanation:

  • The packet-tracer utility simulates a packet passing through the complete FTD data path, displaying the verdict of each internal processing phase (Route lookup, UN-NAT, Access-List, IP Options, Inspection, NAT).
  • When the drop occurs at Phase: ACCESS-LIST, it confirms that the simulated traffic matched an explicit Block rule or fell through to the default Block All Traffic rule in the Access Control Policy.
  • Distractor analysis: Option A would fail at Phase: ADJACENCY or RESOLVE. Option C drops at Phase: SNORT or INSPECTION. Option D is a remote server response, whereas packet-tracer evaluates local firewall policy.

Scenario 10: Platform Settings - Secure Management Access & NTP Synchronization

Topology Background:
An FTD appliance suddenly ceases processing Snort intrusion updates, and certificate validation across all SSL decryption rules begins failing with expired certificate errors despite certificates being valid. Upon inspection, the engineer discovers that the FTD clock differs from FMC by 4 hours. Where in FMC must the engineer configure centralized Network Time Protocol (NTP) settings for managed FTD devices?

  • A. Access Control Policy $\rightarrow$ Advanced Settings
  • B. Devices $\rightarrow$ Platform Settings $\rightarrow$ Time Synchronization / NTP
  • C. Objects $\rightarrow$ Object Management $\rightarrow$ Time Ranges
  • D. System $\rightarrow$ Configuration $\rightarrow$ Management Interfaces

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Technical Explanation:

  • In Cisco FMC, device-specific operating system parameters—including NTP time synchronization, SSH management access, DNS resolution, and Syslog—are configured within Platform Settings (Devices > Platform Settings).
  • Applying a Platform Settings policy specifying reliable NTP servers ensures that FTD hardware clocks remain synchronized with FMC. Clock synchronization is critical for:
    1. SSL/TLS certificate validity checks.
    2. Security rule time ranges.
    3. Chronological log correlation during security investigations.
  • Distractor analysis: Option A contains ACP-specific settings (e.g., inspect private clouds). Option C defines time-based ACL objects. Option D configures FMC's own local appliance interfaces.

5. Recommended Study Resources & Official Documentation


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7. Community Discussions & Contributions

  • Architecture Discussions & Policy Reviews: Share FMC rule designs, custom Snort 3 rule templates, and troubleshooting playbooks in GitHub Discussions.
  • Issue Submissions: To report an errata or suggest new scenario questions, open a ticket in GitHub Issues.
  • Lab Submissions: Sample Firepower deployment guides and lab topologies are welcomed via Pull Requests.

Maintained by the Cisco Certified Curriculum Community. Contributions and pull requests are welcomed.

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